View Full Version : Snookered with ball in hand!

phil in sofla
07-04-2002, 03:05 AM
Late in a 9 ball game, I miss a kick, the balls move around, and it ends up the low ball on the table is deep in the jaws and the 9 is about in the jaws, covering all lanes to it, with one other ball on the same end of the table. There's almost enough daylight on one side to get past, but not quite enough.

This was such a unique situation that neither of us could figure out what to do. His first instinct was just to hand me back the ball, taking a foul himself. I suggested I'd just do the same thing back to him, and we both stupidly agreed that wouldn't work (doh!). Guess we both overlooked that I was already on one foul, so if I did that, I'd be on two, he'd do it again, then on two himself, and then I'd lose the game on the inevitable third foul, if he called me on the second one before I shot. Ironically, if he didn't, I'd get that extra foul without losing, and then calling him on two before he shot, win on that technicality.

My opponent decided to try the impossible skinny through the opening with English, fouling the 9 out of the way, and gave me the rack. That might have been possible with a hard stroke, compressing the rail, since it was about 1/16th of a ball too thin for a ball to get through there.

But no reason to take any risk of nicking the 9. If he had taken the deliberate foul, I would have been forced to make the low ball, and my only play would have been to try to make a two ball out hard. I could have tried to tie up the last ball rolling the 9 to it, or tried to get the 9 to the middle of the opposite short rail.

At least now I've seen it and know what to do next time it shows up. Which should be 6,000 hours from now, if it holds true to form, LOL! Or maybe now it will show up a couple of more times.

This situation ever happen to you? Did you play it right?

07-04-2002, 04:45 AM
I've had a similar situation but it was an eight ball game with no three foul rule in effect but there was a stale-mate rule and resolved by the TD that way.

07-04-2002, 11:01 AM
I'm pretty sure in retrospect I played that shot wrong. But gee whiz Phil, you sure missed that kick shot pretty bad.


07-04-2002, 11:24 AM
Phil, this comes up occasionally, but usually it must be manufactured. As an example, my opponent has just fouled twice and left me this on the 1 ball:

%Af9Z9%Bd2Z6%CH9R3%DJ5L0%Eh3Z3%Fj4I0%GO7V1%Hc5W0%I O2J9%Pg9V9


I will play:

%Af9Z9%Bd2Z6%CH9R3%DJ5L0%Eh3Z3%Fj4I0%GO7V1%Hc5W0%I O2J9%P_6R7

Playing the 8 to land on top of the 1, even though it is a foul, wins the game. My opponent three-fouls without even having the chance to kick.

Now, let's take the same situation, but reverse it so that it's YOU on 1 foul, leaving your opponent this shot. He plays it. The only thing for you to do is intentionally foul, but a strategic one whereby you move the 8 and the 2. Try to leave the 1 ball hooked to the 5, but with no other balls in the immediate area for him to play the above shot again.

- Steve