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View Full Version : question derived from "abusing" thread



sack316
01-18-2008, 02:18 AM
I put this in one of my responses in the "Abusing Children in the name of God (http://www.billiardsdigest.com/ccboard/showflat.php?Cat=&Board=npr&Number=271085&page=1&v iew=collapsed&sb=5&o=&fpart=1) thread, but never got a response or opinion on the matter. This is not an attempt to revamp that particular debate, I was just curious as to the opinions on another circumstance.

The pretty well unanimous opinion on the cited thread seemed to be that the adults in question should be punished to the full extent of the law. My question is this:

Should insurance companies be held criminally responsible in such a matter? I'm sure we've all heard of cases (and there was one major story recently-- involving CIGNA (http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/22357873/) ) where the insurance companies have denied treatment, coverage, or only allowed cheaper and less effective methods of care for people... children included. Now I know a lot of them have been wide open to civil claims... but in an extreme case should an insurance company be charged criminally if their "lack of action" were to result in unnecessary suffering or death--- first to anybody in general, and/or to a child.

Just curious what the thoughts would be on that.

Sack